Oct 13, 2008 02:10
15 yrs ago
English term
Ashley
Not a translator
Equality
Non-PRO
English to Latin
Social Sciences
Human Resources
this word describes men and women are created equal.
Proposed translations
(Latin)
| 5 | No such word in Latin |
Joseph Brazauskas
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| 3 +1 | aequalitas [aequalitat-] |
ivo abdman
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Proposed translations
+1
1 hr
ivo abdman
Indonesia
Indonesia
Indonesia
Native in: Indonesian 
Works in: English to Indonesian, Indonesian to English, Italian to English, and 7 more.
aequalitas [aequalitat-]
aequalitas
N F
evenness; equality (of age/status/merit/distribution)| uniformity| symmetry
http://www.babylon.com/definition/aequalitas/English
http://www.google.com/search?q=aequalitat
N F
evenness; equality (of age/status/merit/distribution)| uniformity| symmetry
http://www.babylon.com/definition/aequalitas/English
http://www.google.com/search?q=aequalitat
10 hrs
Joseph Brazauskas
United States
United States
Native in English
United States
When You Want It Done Right
Native in: English (Variant: British) , Spanish (Variant: Standard-Spain)
Works in: Latin to English, English to Latin, Greek (Ancient) to English, and 23 more.
No such word in Latin
Classical Latin has no such word because the Romans and the later Mediaeval European peoples who employed their language entertained no such concept as the equality of all men and women, or even the equality of all men.
Pythagoras, Plato (in his Republic) and a few other ancient philosophers posited, theoretically at least, the equality of the sexes, and Seneca Jr.. in one of his Epistles to Lucilius, eloquently inisisted on the moral (but not legal) equality of slaves and free men. There were a few lone voices during the later Middle Ages and early modern times, but this notion did not begin to attract serious attention until the 18th century, and has become a reality, by no means everywhere, only in the 20th.
Pythagoras, Plato (in his Republic) and a few other ancient philosophers posited, theoretically at least, the equality of the sexes, and Seneca Jr.. in one of his Epistles to Lucilius, eloquently inisisted on the moral (but not legal) equality of slaves and free men. There were a few lone voices during the later Middle Ages and early modern times, but this notion did not begin to attract serious attention until the 18th century, and has become a reality, by no means everywhere, only in the 20th.
Peer comment(s):
| neutral |
ivo abdman
: Totally I agree with the reference, but I think you have fault logic of thinking, It's only term to describe what happen abroad, it's a possibility. Also refer to LUIS ANTONIO DE LARRAURI
1 day 16 hrs
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I don't see it as a matter of thought, logical or other, but as a matter of usage. And in Latin--at least in good Latin--the term 'aequalitas' does NOT bear this connotation.
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